According to Section 25 (a) of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the
claimant fails to submit his statement of claim
without sufficient cause?

How long does the registered address furnished
under Section 14A (1) of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed ?

A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court
issues summons requiring him to appear. After
receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer
to understand the timeline for filing his written
statement of defence under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the
date of service of summons must he submit his
written statement ?

Which of the following situation falls within
Section 58 (1) (b) of the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908?

Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908, what is the maximum period of detention
in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding ₹
5,000 ?

As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic
community in India seeks to preserve its unique
script and literature. Which constitutional
provision guarantees them the right to conserve
the same?

According to The Copyright Act, 1957, what is
ordinarily the maximum punishment for
copyright infringement under Section 63 ?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how
many High Court Judges constitute the judicial
membership of the Rule Committee ?

According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
who can direct the Court that passed the decree
to take security when an execution order is
challenged in appeal?

As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th
Constitutional Amendment, which directive
principle was modified to ensure early childhood
care and education below the age of six ?

As per Section 30 of CrPC, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to two years' imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of fine?

Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?

What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act?

Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?

According to Section 18 of the BNSS, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an Advocate, required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor?

Under Section 8 of BNS, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of Rs. 4000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?

Under Section 290(1) of BNSS, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application of plea bargaining?

A juvenile  aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case, primarily fall

If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of BNS, 2023

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the IPC, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment upto 7 years.

Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender.

In the context of the above statements under the IPC, which one of the following is correct?

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption.

Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee's fault.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct?

According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?

Under Section 11 of BNS 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?

If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the IPC or Section 16 of BNS provides

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape.

Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable.

In the context of the above assertion and
reason, which one of the following is correct?

In the following question, a Statement is
followed by two Conclusions, I and II.

Statement: According to the Child and Adolescent Labour
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the
appropriate Government credits 15,000 to the
Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation
Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the
fine amount from the employer has been
deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited
or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is
also payable to the child or adolescent.

Conclusions:

I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it.

II. The Government is not required to deposit
any money other than what is collected as
fines from the employer

In the context of the above Statement and
Conclusions, which one of the following is
correct?

Read the following Statements related to the
Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose
the correct option.

Statement 1 : Under the Information Technology
Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be
suspended by the Certifying Authority on the
request of the subscriber, an authorized
representative, or if it is considered necessary in
the public interest.

Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital
Signature Certificate can remain suspended
indefinitely without providing the subscriber an
opportunity of being heard.

In the following question, a Statement is
followed by two Conclusions, I and II.

Statement: As per Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013
every company must, within fifteen days of
receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish
the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all
its Directors to the Registrar with prescribed
fees. Failure to comply attracts penalties.

Conclusions:

I. If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized.

II. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties.

In the context of the above Statement and
Conclusions, which one of the following is
correct?

According to the Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881, what is the maximum sentence of
imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a
summary trial under Section 143 ?

Rahul rents a shop in the city for running his
retail business. Later, the landlord decides to
terminate the lease. Since the lease is for
purposes other than agriculture or
manufacturing and there is no special contract
between the parties, the landlord wonders how
many days' notice he must legally give under the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease.
What is the required notice period ?

According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when
is the communication of an acceptance
complete against the proposer ?

According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount
a Court can award as compensatory costs in
ordinary cases?

After a government notification is issued for
acquiring Mr. Mehta's farmland under the Land
Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income
from his crops steadily decreases until the
authorities finally take possession. He
approaches the court claiming compensation for
this reduction in profits. According to the Act,
what type of loss is compensable in such a case?

Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961,
what percentage of the annual value of an
income from house property is allowed as a
standard deduction?

Read the given statements and choose the
correct option

Statement 1 : Under the Negotiable Instruments
Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn,
accepted, or transferred without consideration
creates no obligation of payment between the
parties to the transaction.

Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the
consideration for which a negotiable instrument
was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate
relation is entitled to recover only the
proportionate amount corresponding to the
consideration actually received.

In the context of the above statements under
the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one
of the following is correct?

Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction
under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?

Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya
Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally
relevant and may be proved against the person
making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved
by or on behalf of that person.

Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on
behalf of the person making it if it relates to the
existence of a state of mind or body, made at or
about the time when such condition existed, and
is supported by conduct showing its
truthfulness.

In the context of the above statements under
the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which
one of the following is correct?

Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R).

Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a
newspaper declared forfeited, may apply to the
High Court to set aside the declaration within
two months of its publication in the Official
Gazette.

Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court
to hear such applications must always consist of
exactly three judges, regardless of the strength
of that High Court.

In the context of the above assertion and reason
under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
which one of the following is correct?

Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation
prevents a patent application from being
published even after the expiry of the prescribed
period?

According to Section 44AA (2) (i) of the Income
tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must
maintain books of account if income from
business or profession exceeds:

Under which provision can a citizen file a public
case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues
of public interest?

Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the
minimum period that must elapse between the
publication of notice and the appearance of
persons interested before the Collector?

Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation(PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court ?

What is the maximum term of imprisonment
prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of
Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for
breach of protection order ?

If a case is transmitted to the Central
Government under Section 10 of the Special
Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for
solemnizing the marriage after its decision?

Read the given statements and choose the
correct option

Statement 1 : Under the Income tax Act, 1961, a
deduction equal to 30% of the atimual value is
atternes while computing income from house
property.

Statement 2: Where the property has been
acquired or constructed with borrowed capital,
the maximum deduction for interest payable on
such capital is capped at 2,00,000, subject to
conditions.

In the following question, a Statement is
followed by two Conclusions, I and II.

Statement : / किन:
According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the
term of a State Bar Council expires without an
election, the Bar Council of India shall constitute
a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio
member of the State Bar Council as Chairman
and two nominated members. The Special
Committee has the power to discharge all
functions of the State Bar Council until the new
Council is constituted, and elections must be
held within six months unless the period is
extended by the Bar Council of India.

Conclusions : / कनष्किघ :
I. The Special Committee is empowered to
handle pending disciplinary matters of the
State Bar Council.

II. The Bar Council of India may extend the
six-month period for holding elections to
the State Bar Council, for recorded
reasons.

In the context of the above Statement and
Conclusions, which one of the following is
correct?

Read the given Statements and choose the
correct option.

A dispute arises between two companies
regarding the enforcement of their arbitration
clause. Examine the following statements:

Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be
in writing, and it can be contained in a contract,
an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or
electronic communications.

Statement 2 : An arbitration agreement may be
implied solely from the conduct of the parties,
without any written record.

Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R).

Assertion (A) : Under the Bharatiya Nagarik
Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person
appears within the time specified in the
proclamation, the Court shall release the
attached property.
Reason (R) : The attachment of property under
the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is
intended to compel the appearance of the
proclaimed person before the Court, not to
permanently deprive him of his property.

In the context of the above assertion and
reason, which one of the following is correct?

Read the following statements and choose the
correct option:
Statement 1 : Under the Administrative
Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative
Tribunal for two or more States exercises the
same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an
Administrative Tribunal for those States.

Statement 2 : For the purposes of contempt, a
Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a
High Court, and references to “High Court” in
the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed
to include such Tribunals.

In the context of the above statements under
the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which
one of the following is correct?

Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a
defendant in possession of movable property be
compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff ?

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what
happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the
debt unpaid and there are two or more cosureties ?

The Supreme Court of India in R. K. Anand v.
Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held
an advocate guilty of misconduct for:

By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme
Court of India and the High Courts in the States
are courts of record and possess contempt
Jurisdiction. What is true about the lower
Judiciary in the same connection ?

Consider the following statements regarding
Article 32 of the Constitution of India :

I. The Article is silent about the locus standi
about who may approach the Supreme
Court.

II. The Article is silent about the opposite
party against whom the relief under
Article 32 may be granted.

III. The Article creates room for even a sixth
type of writ within its scope.

Which of the following Schedules of the
Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of "Validation of certain Acts & Regulations' ?

The Supreme Court of India has declared that
'Right to Information' is a fundamental right of
every citizen of India. Which of the following
stated provisions is used as source of the
fundamental right given by the Supreme Court?

In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court,
i.e., the High Court, has restrained publication of
any news on the given case. Which of the
following constitutional powers has been
exercised by the High Court while passing given
order?

The President has referred a question to the
Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per
Article 143 of the Constitution of India, has
advised the President accordingly.

Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be
considered as 'judicial precedent' ?

Which of the following actions is required if
territory is ceded to any other country by the
Union of India ?

In which of the following judgment/s was the
issue of 'right to privacy' dealt with by the
Supreme Court of India ?

I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295)

II. PUCL v. Union of India ( AIR 1997 SC 568)
III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1

IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC
300 )

Which Article in the Constitution of India relates
to the subject-matter of laws made by
Parliament to give effect to treaties and
international agreements ?

In which of the following cases, the Supreme
Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part
of the Constitution ?

The Central Consumer Protection Council, as
provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer
Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of :

Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961
provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India ?

Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a
legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council
shall consist of :

Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following
orders is not appealable ?

As per The Information Technology Act, 2000,
"intermediary", with respect to any particular
clectronic records, means any person who on
behalf of another person receives, stores or
transmits that record or provides any service
with respect to that record and includes.

I. telecom service providers.

II. search engines.

III. cyber cafes.

IV. online-auction sites.

The grounds for decree for dissolution of
marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of
Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are that the:

Select the correct answer.

I. whereabouts of the husband have not
been known for a period of two years.

II. husband has been sentenced to
imprisonment for a period of five years.

III. husband has failed to perform, without
reasonable cause, his marital obligations
for a period of two years.

IV. husband has neglected or has failed to
provide for maintenance of his wife for a
period of one year.

Which Article of the Constitution of India lays
down the fundamental duty of every citizen to
protect and improve the natural environment?

As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two
persons are said to be within the "degrees of
prohibited relationship" if:

I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other,
including relationship by adoption.

II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal
ascendant or descendant of the other,
including relationship by half or uterine
blood as well as by full blood.

III. one was the wife of the brother or of the
father's or mother's brother or of the
grandfather's or grandmother's brother
of the other.

IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and
niece, aunt and nephew, or children of
brother and sister or of two brothers or of
two sisters.

Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya
Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts
?

When is a confession made by a person in police
custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya
Adhiniyam, 2023?

As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree
ox parte can be set aside against a defendant.

I. if he satisfies the Court that the summons
was not duly served

II. if he satisfies the Court that he was
prevented by any sufficient cause from
appearing when the suit was called on for
hearing.

III. if he satisfies the Court that there has
been an irregularity in the service of
summons despite the fact that defendant
had notice of the date of hearing and had
sufficient time to appear and answer the
plaintiff's claim.

IV. without notice being served on the
opposite party.

Where the decree is for the payment of money,
execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgmentdebtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that the

I. judgment-debtor, is likely to abscond or
leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of
the Court.

II. judgment-debtor has, before the
institution of the suit in which the decree
was passed, dishonestly transferred any
part of his property.

III. decree is for a sum for which the
judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary
capacity to account.

IV. judgment-debtor has, or has had since the
date of the decree, the means to pay
substantial amount of the decree and
neglected to pay the same.

As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a
subsequent suit, the former suit

I. has been finally decided.

II. can only be instituted prior to the
subsequent suit

III. relates to the same matter directly and
substantially in issue in the subsequent
suit.

IV. is between the same parties, or between
parties under whom they or any of them
claim.

In which of the following cases, the Supreme
Court of India has pointed out that the rule of
nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the
doctrine of necessity?

Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in
the Supreme Court of India laying down the
principle of ' Absolute Liability' ?

Which of the following public interest litigations
expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to
include right to enjoyment of pollution-free
water and air?

In the absence of an agreement between the
parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to
have commenced under Section 21 of The
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:

For a petition for nullity of marriage under the
Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that
consent was obtained by fraud, what is a
statutory bar to granting the decree?

In the context of delegated legislation, the
judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from
conferring "uncontrolled legislative power" on
the administration is known as the doctrine of:

The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for
specific situations where an agreement without
consideration is not void. Which of the following
agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh
consideration?

As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an
acceptance must be absolute and unqualified.
What is the legal effect if an offeree's response
to a proposal introduces a new term?

Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A) : Under the Hindu Succession Act,
1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family govered
by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by
birth in her own right, just like a son. and
Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the
same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in
coparcenary property as those of sons.

In the context of the above assertion and reason
under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one
of the following is correct?

Read the given statements and choose the
correct option
Statement 1 : Under the Income tax Act, 1961, a
deduction equal to 30% of the atimual value is
atternes while computing income from house
property.

Statement 2: Where the property has been
acquired or constructed with borrowed capital,
the maximum deduction for interest payable on
such capital is capped at 2,00,000, subject to
conditions.

Which one of the following provisions of the
Constitution is not correctly matched?

Inquiry under the BNGS, 2023 is conducted by

Which of the following Section of the Police Act,
1861 provides that 'police officers to keep
diary'?

If the attached properties to be the proceeds of
crime, then by which authority such proceeds of
crime shall be distributed by order of court to the
persons who are affected by such crime?

Which of the following is not specifically
mentioned as a writ in the Coristitution of India ?

In which of the following Section of the Police
Act, 1861 the duties of police officers are
prescribed?

In which Section of the BNSS, 2023 is it 73.
LO provided that male child below the age of
fifteen years cannot be called to police station?

The principle laid down in Pakala Narayan
Swami's case relating to the relevancy of a dying
declaration was accepted by the Supreme Court
of India in which of the following case?

The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to
the Preamble of Indian Constitution by:

Which one of the following is not the duty
prescribed for the mounted police under U.P.
Police Regulations?

Under which Section of the BNSS, 2023, does the provision for 'security for keeping the peace on conviction' exist?

'A' intentionally causes B's death, partly by
illegally omitting to give 'B food, and partly by
beating 'B'. 'A' has commifted the offence of:

Which court may order to execute a bond for
keeping the peace on conviction of a person?
I. Session Court
II. Appellate Court L
CD III. Revisional Court
Choose the correct answer using si the codes given
below: